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Old 10-28-2002, 06:41 PM   #1
Finglas
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language of Rohan

I read somewhere in Unfinished Tales that orthanc has the same translation in the language of Rohan and in Anglo-Saxon. Is that just a coincidence or did Tolkien use A-S to represent Rohan's speech?
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Old 10-28-2002, 07:53 PM   #2
Ñólendil
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"Orthanc" was a Sindarin construction, and it was indeed a coincedence that it has meaning in Old English. Old English is, however, the language Tolkien used to represent Rohirric. He did this because the Rohirrim spoke an archaic dialect of Westron, which is represented throughout the book in modern English, for obvious reasons.
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Old 10-29-2002, 07:04 AM   #3
zavron
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WOW!!!

err... I didnt understand any of that sorry could you dumb it down a bit please


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Old 10-29-2002, 03:42 PM   #4
markedel
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All westron in LOTR is translated into English. All languages derived from or related to westron is translated into languages related to English to reflect the original's relation to westron.

So:
Rohirric=Old English
Dale=Norselike
The various archaic english words in the shire reflect archaic westron still in use.
Even the names reflect this so all English names reflect the real westron names. I.e Merry in Westron=Kali Frodo=Maura etc.
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Old 10-31-2002, 12:15 PM   #5
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Quote:
"Alberto also asked whether _orthanc_, which in Sindarin means 'Mount Fang', and which is said to mean 'Cunning Mind' in "the language of the Mark of Old", is Old English. Yes, it is, and it does mean 'cunning mind'. However, the implication of Tolkien's statement is that the word has the same form and meaning in actual Rohirric (otherwise, there would be no pun apparent to the characters). A remarkable coincidence, indeed!" ~Carl Hostetter
Carl is a member of the Editorial Team currently publishing Tolkien's "new" linguistic papers.
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Old 10-31-2002, 04:05 PM   #6
markedel
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I suppose that makes orthanc the only actual rhorric word in LOTR. Interesting.
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