'Subtle and quick to anger'

[Wayfarer]

Originally Posted by Halbarad of the Dunedain

Gandalf says he does not go into the east so does that mean he does not go into Harad, Rhun, or Mordor? If that is the case then would Gondor not be "south"? Yet when we see Gandalf in Gondor everyone calls him Mithrandir.[Faramir, Denethor, etc.] So... where is the south that Gandalf is called Incánus!?

In the south. Duh.

You've probably missed some of Gandalf's meaning (due to Tolkien's translation from Westron into English ). Gandalf wasn't saying 'in the south' as in 'eastern countries'. He was saying 'in The South', as in 'the region known as The South'. Look at how he phrases it - The West, The North, The South, The East - referring to distinct regions of Arda.

The West is clearly identified with Valinor, but it could be referring to Numenor as well. The North is obviously meant to refer to the northwestern region of middle earth - where the action of the books take place. As for the other two, it's as simple as checking the Sindarin words for the cardinal directions - Numen, Formen, Rhun, Harad. Rhun is The East (making Mordor a kind of 'near east'), and Harad is The South.

[Gwaimir Windgem]

Originally Posted by ItalianLegolas

question: if gandalf was allowed to take on sauron one on one, who would have won?

If I recall, Tolkien said that Gandalf would have won if he had used the Ring against Sauron, but become a new kind of 'Dark Lord'; otherwise, he would have lost.