Quote:
Originally Posted by Gordis
That is undoubtedly true... But if it were ONLY that!
Here is a small example:
in FOTR, PJ had postulated "The Ring obeys ONLY SAURON. We CAN'T use it."
Minor thing, you would say?
But that stupid notion had a lot of consequences. They couldn't make Saruman want the Ring for himself - what for, if he can't use it? So now we have Saruman as Sauron's servant. Why then would Saruman's Uruks lead the captured hobbits west and not east over the river directly to Mordor? - no answer.
Galadriel also looks a total fool, becoming all radioactive-like about the Ring she can't even use!
And now why couldn't Gandalf take the Ring and carry it himself - if he couldn't use it?
Also, if nobody but Sauron could use the Ring, all the underlying reasoning devised by Tolkien for BOTH sides in the "Return of the King" crumbles. Why would Sauron worry who has got his Ring? Why would he be in such a hurry? Why would he offer any terms? He could have proceeded methodically, as a good strategist, and sooner or later he would have conquered the West and regained his Ring - because he was far stronger then the West.
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Oh, come on! It is clear, in context, that the intent was not to say others could not
utilize the ring but that no one but Sauron could
control it. That makes perfect sense to me.